Free Minnesota PTCB Practice Test Online

Correct answer: D. Schedule I

Correct. Schedule I substances are defined under the federal Controlled Substances Act as having a high potential for abuse and no currently accepted medical use in the United States, meaning they cannot be legally prescribed in ordinary clinical practice.

• A: Incorrect. Schedule II substances have a high potential for abuse but do have a currently accepted medical use, with severe restrictions (such as no telephone refills for many products and no automatic refills).
• B: Incorrect. Schedule IV substances have a lower potential for abuse relative to Schedule III and do have an accepted medical use, allowing standard refill limits under federal law.
• C: Incorrect. Schedule V substances have the lowest abuse potential among the scheduled substances and generally have an accepted medical use.

Correct answer: A. Up to 5 refills within 6 months from the date of issue

Correct. Under federal law, a valid Schedule III or IV prescription may generally be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months from the date the prescription was issued, after which a new prescription is required.

• B: Incorrect. Unlimited refills for 5 years substantially overstates the federal refill limit for Schedule III/IV prescriptions.
• C: Incorrect. Federal law allows up to 5 refills within the 6-month window for Schedule III/IV prescriptions, not a strict single-refill limit.
• D: Incorrect. Schedule III and IV prescriptions can generally be refilled, subject to federal limits; they are not automatically non-refillable like most Schedule II prescriptions.

Correct answer: A. VAERS (Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System)

Correct. VAERS (Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System) is the national system specifically designed to collect reports of possible adverse events occurring after vaccine administration, co-managed by the CDC and FDA.

• B: Incorrect. DSCSA transaction reporting concerns drug supply chain traceability documentation, not individual patient adverse event reporting after vaccination.
• C: Incorrect. The NDC database identifies specific drug products, packagers, and labelers; it is not an adverse event reporting mechanism.
• D: Incorrect. An SR-22 filing is an auto insurance financial responsibility document, entirely unrelated to vaccine adverse event reporting.

Correct answer: B. The specific labeler/manufacturer, the specific drug product (including strength and dosage form), and the specific package size

Correct. An NDC number is a unique identifier generally structured to identify the labeler/manufacturer, the specific drug product (including strength and dosage form), and the specific package size of a given medication.

• A: Incorrect. A prescriber's DEA registration number is a separate identifier tied to the prescriber's authority to prescribe controlled substances, not the drug product itself.
• C: Incorrect. A patient's health insurance policy number is unrelated to the NDC, which identifies the drug product rather than the patient or their coverage.
• D: Incorrect. A pharmacy's state license number is a separate credential identifying the pharmacy itself, not the specific drug product being dispensed.

Correct answer: C. Twice daily

Correct. 'b.i.d.' is a standard Sig abbreviation meaning twice daily (from the Latin 'bis in die').

• A: Incorrect. Every other day is generally abbreviated using a different notation (such as 'q.o.d.,' itself an error-prone abbreviation best avoided), not 'b.i.d.'
• B: Incorrect. Once daily is generally abbreviated 'q.d.' or, more explicitly to avoid error-prone abbreviations, written out as 'daily,' not 'b.i.d.'
• D: Incorrect. Three times daily is generally abbreviated 't.i.d.,' not 'b.i.d.'